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ISACA IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q24-Q29):

NEW QUESTION # 24
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason to perform a qualitative risk analysis?

A. To aggregate risk in a meaningful way for a comprehensive view of enterprise risk
B. To map the value of benefits that can be directly compared to the cost of a risk response
C. To gain a low-cost understanding of business unit dependencies and interactions

Answer: C

Explanation:
A qualitative risk analysis is most likely performed to gain a low-cost understanding of business unit dependencies and interactions. Here's the explanation:
* To Gain a Low-Cost Understanding of Business Unit Dependencies and Interactions: Qualitative risk analysis focuses on assessing risks based on their characteristics and impacts through subjective measures such as interviews, surveys, and expert judgment. It is less resource-intensive compared to quantitative analysis and provides a broad understanding of dependencies and interactions within the business units.
* To Aggregate Risk in a Meaningful Way for a Comprehensive View of Enterprise Risk: While qualitative analysis can contribute to this, the primary goal is not aggregation but rather understanding individual risks and their impacts.
* To Map the Value of Benefits That Can Be Directly Compared to the Cost of a Risk Response: This is typically the goal of quantitative risk analysis, which involves numerical estimates of risks and their impacts to compare costs and benefits directly.
Therefore, the primary reason for performing a qualitative risk analysis is to gain a low-cost understanding of business unit dependencies and interactions.

NEW QUESTION # 25
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are used for which of the following purposes when developing a project plan?

A. Assigning risk owners
B. Determining resource allocation
C. Performing a gap analysis

Answer: C

Explanation:
Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) are early warning metrics that help organizations identify and monitor potential risks before they escalate into significant issues. When developing a project plan, KRIs are most effectively used for performing a gap analysis, as they help compare the current risk posture with the desired risk management objectives.
Why KRIs Are Used for Gap Analysis?
* Identifying Weaknesses in Risk Management:
* KRIs highlight areas where existing risk controls are insufficient or where new threats may emerge.
* They provide quantitative and qualitative data to measure whether risk mitigation strategies are working effectively.
* Improving Risk Response Planning:
* KRIs help assess deviations from expected risk thresholds, allowing organizations to adjust risk responses accordingly.
* By comparing current conditions with benchmarks, organizations can identify gaps in security, compliance, and resilience measures.
* Enhancing Decision-Making in Project Planning:
* A well-executed gap analysis using KRIs ensures that project plans include appropriate risk management strategies from the start.
* This minimizes unexpected disruptions, cost overruns, and compliance issues during project execution.
Why Not the Other Options?
* Option A (Determining resource allocation):
* KRIs provide risk insights, but they do not directly allocate resources. Resource allocation depends on project budgets and priorities rather than just KRIs.
* Option B (Assigning risk owners):
* KRIs help identify risks, but the responsibility for managing risks is typically assigned based on organizational risk management frameworks and governance policies, not KRIs alone.
Conclusion:
KRIs are best used for gap analysis because they help compare actual risk exposure against defined risk management goals, allowing organizations to identify vulnerabilities and improve their risk mitigation strategies.
# Reference: Principles of Incident Response & Disaster Recovery - Module 1: Risk Management Framework

NEW QUESTION # 26
Which type of assessment evaluates the changes in technical or operating environments that could result in adverse consequences to an enterprise?

A. Control self-assessment
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. Threat assessment

Answer: C

Explanation:
A Threat Assessment evaluates changes in the technical or operating environments that could result in adverse consequences to an enterprise. This process involves identifying potential threats thatcould exploit vulnerabilities in the system, leading to significant impacts on the organization's operations, financial status, or reputation. It is essential to distinguish between different types of assessments:
* Vulnerability Assessment: Focuses on identifying weaknesses in the system that could be exploited by threats. It does not specifically evaluate changes in the environment but rather the existing vulnerabilities within the system.
* Threat Assessment: Involves evaluating changes in the technical or operating environments that could introduce new threats or alter the impact of existing threats. It looks at how external and internal changes could create potential risks for the organization. This assessment is crucial for understanding how the evolving environment can influence the threat landscape.
* Control Self-Assessment (CSA): A process where internal controls are evaluated by the employees responsible for them. It helps in identifying control gaps but does not specifically focus on changes in
* the environment or their impact.
Given these definitions, the correct type of assessment that evaluates changes in technical or operating environments that could result in adverse consequences to an enterprise is the Threat Assessment.

NEW QUESTION # 27
What is the PRIMARY purpose of providing timely and accurate risk information to key stakeholders?

A. To develop effective key risk indicators (KRIs)
B. To facilitate risk-based decision making
C. To establish risk appetite

Answer: B

Explanation:
The primary purpose of providing timely and accurate risk information to stakeholders is to facilitate risk- based decision making. Stakeholders need this information to understand the risks associated with different options and make informed decisions that align with the organization's risk appetite and objectives.
While risk information can inform risk appetite (A), that's not the primary purpose of providing the information. Developing KRIs (C) is part of risk monitoring, not communication.

NEW QUESTION # 28
As part of an I&T related risk assessment, which of the following should be reviewed to obtain an initial view of overall I&T related risk for the enterprise?

A. Threats and vulnerabilities for each risk factor identified
B. Components of the risk register with remediation plans
C. Components of the risk universe at a high level

Answer: C

Explanation:
The risk universe represents all potential risks that an organization faces. Reviewing the components of the risk universe at a high level provides an initial overview of the overall I&T-related risks for the enterprise.
This allows for a broad understanding of the landscape before diving into more specific details.
While threats and vulnerabilities (A) are important, they are part of the risk universe, not the overall view.
The risk register (B) contains details of identified risks, often with remediation plans, but it's a subset of the risk universe.

NEW QUESTION # 29
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Authorized IT-Risk-Fundamentals Exam Dumps & IT-Risk-Fundamentals Valid Exam Tips

ISACA IT-Risk-Fundamentals Valid Exam Tips - Sample IT-Risk-Fundamentals Exam

ISACA IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q24-Q29):

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